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If an "assault weapon" ban would make a difference then why did it not make any difference (positively that is) when we had the Biden written assault weapon ban from Nov 94-04? If it was going to make a difference we should have seen a stair step (down) of violence/murders when inacted then a stair step (up) when it elapsed. It was intentionally allowed to lapse because it was unconstitutional and appeared to make no difference (positively) as the trends staid linear. Please advise.
The relationship between polypharma and domestic interpersonal violence seems to be getting tighter. We seem to acknowledge how the crack epidemic impacted this metric but intentionally won't look at the legal drugging of the population. Think there are social factors that drive this polypharma also. The whole nothing is a mental illness that needs intervention since we have pills to treat things. And the allowance of severe mental illnesses that we used to treat in hospitals now are just people's "preferences", "identity", and "different abilities". The side effects of behavior treatment paled in comparison to hardcore pilypharma we see today. Think the polypharma, suicide, and public murder suicide axis is growing stronger the deeper we go in the data.
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